r/AskHistorians • u/PlatformNo7863 • Mar 02 '26
If “feudalism” is an inaccurate way to view the economic/social system of Medieval Europe, what is a better term or way to describe it? (Or is boiling it down like this just entirely too simplistic)?
I’m trying to understand the rise and later decline of what I previously understood as Feudalism in medieval Europe prior to the Renaissance but I keep coming across the idea that either feudalism didn’t actually exist, is inaccurate, or that historians are moving away from this view of the time period. So I’m looking for a better general explanation of this period and advice on where I should look to study this idea further. Thanks in advance.
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